Damaged Goods
Member
- Location
- Maryland
I fully understand when subjunctive, rather than indicative, mood is appropriate, and I know that style usage rules dictate the use of "were" rather than "was," as is used in the indicative.
But why???
1st person singular subjunctive mood:
If I were king, there would have been no taxation. (Teacher gives you gold star.)
If I was king, there would have been no taxation. (Teacher raps your knuckles.)
3rd person singular subjunctive mood:
If he were in better shape, he'd've won the race. (Another gold star.)
If he was in better shape, he'd've won the race. (Another rap on the knuckles.)
The use of "was" wouldn't detract from understanding that the construction of the sentences is subjunctive rather than indicative.
But why???
1st person singular subjunctive mood:
If I were king, there would have been no taxation. (Teacher gives you gold star.)
If I was king, there would have been no taxation. (Teacher raps your knuckles.)
3rd person singular subjunctive mood:
If he were in better shape, he'd've won the race. (Another gold star.)
If he was in better shape, he'd've won the race. (Another rap on the knuckles.)
The use of "was" wouldn't detract from understanding that the construction of the sentences is subjunctive rather than indicative.