Traveler
Senior Member
- Location
- San Diego County
On another thread it was stated that the American judicial system is "PRO-RAPE", and that unless the woman was beaten it is difficult to obtain a conviction.
Let us examine that. First, we must look at the issue from the view-point of the judge. Let us look at ALL cases where the word of one person is weighed against the word of another person. Imagine that you are the judge. You have a case before you where one person is asking for relief for a loan. You, the judge, ask that person if he/she has any proof that a loan was made ? The person answers, "No, your honor".
You, the judge, then ask the person who is being sued, "Did you receive a loan from the plaintiff ?" Answer: "No, your honor".
What do you do ? With no proof of a loan ever being made, how can you possibly find for the plaintiff ? You, as the judge, must rule "case dismissed". Does that verdict make you biased against the plaintiff ? No, of course not. You, the judge, have your hands tied. Without any proof,there is nothing you can do.
The same problem occurs in a rape case, if the woman has not been beaten. It comes down to a matter of one person's word against another's word. This is especially true in date rape situations. The man's fingerprints are all over the location. But, it in a dating situation, that is to be expected.
The woman may have gone to the hospital and the lab results absolutely prove that his DNA was removed from the woman. What, exactly does that prove ? It proves that there was sexual completion. It does not prove that there was rape.
As the judge, what do you do ? Do you assume that the woman is telling the absolute truth and instruct the jury to believe the woman and not the man ? If you, the judge, did so, the case would absolutely be over-turned on appeal.
There can be no doubt, what-so-ever, that some women are raped. There can be no doubt, what-so-ever, that some men are rapists. The problem is how do we prove rape "beyond a reasonable doubt", if there is no sign of a struggle ?
The problem is compounded when alcohol is involved. It is not reasonable to conclude that since a woman was intoxicated she could not possibly have gone willingly to the bed. She may, repeat may, have felt one way that night but another way in the morning. How are we to know for certain ?
This is a very difficult issue. Just because a man is found not guilty, it does not follow that there is a pro-rape judicial system. Just as in the case of the alleged loan, how are we to determine who is telling the truth ?
Let us examine that. First, we must look at the issue from the view-point of the judge. Let us look at ALL cases where the word of one person is weighed against the word of another person. Imagine that you are the judge. You have a case before you where one person is asking for relief for a loan. You, the judge, ask that person if he/she has any proof that a loan was made ? The person answers, "No, your honor".
You, the judge, then ask the person who is being sued, "Did you receive a loan from the plaintiff ?" Answer: "No, your honor".
What do you do ? With no proof of a loan ever being made, how can you possibly find for the plaintiff ? You, as the judge, must rule "case dismissed". Does that verdict make you biased against the plaintiff ? No, of course not. You, the judge, have your hands tied. Without any proof,there is nothing you can do.
The same problem occurs in a rape case, if the woman has not been beaten. It comes down to a matter of one person's word against another's word. This is especially true in date rape situations. The man's fingerprints are all over the location. But, it in a dating situation, that is to be expected.
The woman may have gone to the hospital and the lab results absolutely prove that his DNA was removed from the woman. What, exactly does that prove ? It proves that there was sexual completion. It does not prove that there was rape.
As the judge, what do you do ? Do you assume that the woman is telling the absolute truth and instruct the jury to believe the woman and not the man ? If you, the judge, did so, the case would absolutely be over-turned on appeal.
There can be no doubt, what-so-ever, that some women are raped. There can be no doubt, what-so-ever, that some men are rapists. The problem is how do we prove rape "beyond a reasonable doubt", if there is no sign of a struggle ?
The problem is compounded when alcohol is involved. It is not reasonable to conclude that since a woman was intoxicated she could not possibly have gone willingly to the bed. She may, repeat may, have felt one way that night but another way in the morning. How are we to know for certain ?
This is a very difficult issue. Just because a man is found not guilty, it does not follow that there is a pro-rape judicial system. Just as in the case of the alleged loan, how are we to determine who is telling the truth ?